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This is an attempt to demonstrate the existence of God using logical absolutes. The oversimplified
argument, which is expanded in outline form below, goes as follows: Logical absolutes
exist. Logical absolutes are conceptual by nature, are not dependent on space, time,
physical properties, or human nature. They are not the product of the physical universe
(space, time, matter), because if the physical universe were to disappear, logical absolutes
would still be true. Logical Absolutes are not the product of human minds, because human
minds are different, not absolute. But, since logical absolutes are always true everywhere,
and not dependent upon human minds, it must be an absolute transcendent mind that is authoring
them. This mind is called God.
Logical Absolutes Law of Identity
Something is what it is, and isn't what it is not. Something that exists has a specific
nature. For example, a cloud is a cloud, not a rock.
A fish is a fish, not a car. Law of Non-Contradiction
Something cannot be both true and false at the same time in the same sense.
For example, to say that the cloud is not a cloud would be a contradiction since it
would violate the first law. The cloud cannot be what it is and not what it is at the same
time. Law of Excluded Middle (LEM)
A statement is either true or false, without a middle ground.
"I am alive" is either true or false. "You are pregnant" is either true or false.
Note one: "This statement is false" is not a valid statement (not logically true) since
it is self-refuting and is dealt with by the Law of Non-contradiction. Therefore, it does
not fall under the LEM category since it is a self-contradiction.
Note two: If we were to ignore note one, then there is a possible paradox here. The sentence
"this statement is false" does not fit this Law since if it is true, then it is false.
Paradoxes occur only when we have absolutes. Nevertheless, the LEM is valid except for
the paradoxical statement cited. Note three: If we again ignore note one and
admit a paradox, then we must acknowledge that paradoxes exist only within the realm
of absolutes. Logical absolutes are truth statements such
as: That which exists has attributes and a nature.
A cloud exists and has the attributes of whiteness, vapor, etc. It has the nature of water and
air. A rock is hard, heavy, and is composed of
its rock material (granite, marble, sediment, etc.).
Something cannot be itself and not itself at the same time.
It cannot be true to state that a rock is not a rock.
Something cannot bring itself into existence. In order for something to bring itself into
existence, it has to have attributes in order to perform an action. But if it has attributes,
then it already has existence. If something does not exist, it has no attributes and can
perform no actions. Therefore, something cannot bring itself into existence.
Truth is not self-contradictory. It could not be true that you are reading
this and not reading this at the same time in the same sense. It is either true or false
that you are reading this. Therefore, Logical Absolutes are absolutely
true. They are not subjectively true; that is, they are not sometimes true and sometimes
false, depending on preference or situation. Otherwise, they would not be absolute.
Logical Absolutes form the basis of rational discourse.
If the Logical Absolutes are not absolute, then truth cannot be known.
If the Logical Absolutes are not absolute, then no rational discourse can occur.
For example, I could say that a square is a circle (violating the law of identity),
or that I am and am not alive in the same sense at the same time (violating the law
of non-contradiction). But no one would expect to have a rational
conversation with someone who spoke in contradictory statements.
If Logical Absolutes are not always true, then it might be true that something can contradict
itself, which would make truth unknowable and rational discourse impossible. But, saying
that something can contradict itself can't be true.
But since we know things are true (I exist, you are reading this), then we can conclude
that logical statements are true. Otherwise, we would not be able to rationally discuss
or know truth. If they are not the basis of rational discourse,
then we cannot know truth or error since the laws that govern rationality are not absolute.
This would allow people to speak irrationally, i.e., blue sleeps faster than Wednesday.
Logical Absolutes are transcendent. Logical Absolutes are not dependent on space.
They do not stop being true dependent on location. If we travel a million light years in a direction,
logical absolutes are still true. Logical Absolutes are not dependent on time.
They do not stop being true dependent on time. If we travel a billion years in the future
or past, logical absolutes are still true. Logical Absolutes are not dependent on people.
That is, they are not the product of human thinking.
People's minds are different. What one person considers to be absolute may not be what another
considers to be absolute. People often contradict each other. Therefore, Logical Absolutes cannot
be the product of human, contradictory minds. If Logical Absolutes were the product of human
minds, they would cease to exist if people ceased to exist, which would mean they would
be dependent on human minds. But this cannot be so per the previous point.
Logical Absolutes are not dependent on the material world.
Logical Absolutes are not found in atoms, motion, heat, under rocks, etc.
Logical Absolutes cannot be photographed, frozen, weighed, or measured.
Logical Absolutes are not the product of the physical universe, since that would mean they
were contingent on atoms, motion, heat, etc., and that their nature was dependent on physical
existence. If their nature were dependent upon physical
existence, they would cease to exist when the physical universe ceases to exist.
But, if the universe did not exist, logical absolutes are still true.
For example, if the universe did not exist, it is still true that something cannot bring
itself into existence; that is, anything that did exist would have an identity, and whatever
could exist could not be itself and not itself at the same time.
Therefore, they are not dependent on the material world.
Logical Absolutes are conceptual by nature. Logic is a process of the mind. Logical absolutes
provide the framework for logical thought processes. Therefore, Logical Absolutes are
conceptual by nature. Expanded: Logical absolutes are either conceptual
by nature or they are not. If they are conceptual by nature, then they
are not dependent upon the physical universe for their existence.
If they are non-conceptual by nature, then: What is their nature?
If it is denied that Logical Absolutes are either conceptual or physical, then there
must be a 3rd (or 4th...) option. What would that option be?
If another option cannot be logically offered, then the only options available to us are
conceptual and physical. Since logic is not a property of physical
sufficient. Thoughts reflect the mind
A person's thoughts reflect what he or she is.
Absolutely perfect thoughts reflect an absolutely perfect mind.
Since the Logical Absolutes are transcendent, absolute, are perfectly consistent, and are
independent of the universe, then they reflect a transcendent, absolute, perfect, and independent
mind. We call this transcendent, absolute, perfect,
and independent mind God. Objections Answered
Logical Absolutes are the result of natural existence.
In what sense are they the result of natural existence? How do conceptual absolutes form
as a result of the existence of matter? Logical Absolutes simply exist.
This is begging the question and does not provide an explanation for their existence.
Simply saying they exist is not an answer. Logical Absolutes are conventions.
A convention, in this context, is an agreed upon principle. But since people differ on
what is and is not true, then logical absolutes cannot be the product of human minds, and
therefore are not the product of human conventions; that is, of human agreements.
This would mean that logical absolutes were invented upon an agreement by a sufficient
number of people. But this would mean that logical absolutes are a product of human minds,
which cannot be the case since human minds differ and are often contradictory. Furthermore,
the nature of logical absolutes is that they transcend space and time (not dependent on
space and time for their validity) and are absolute (they don't change) by nature. Therefore,
they could not be the product of human minds which are finite and not absolute.
Logical Absolutes are eternal. What is meant by stating they are eternal?
If a person says that logical absolutes have always existed, then how is it they could
exist without a mind (if the person denies the existence of an absolute and transcendent
Since the nature of logic is conceptual, and logical absolutes form the framework of this
conceptual process known as logic, it would be logical to conclude that the only way logical
absolutes could be uncaused is if there was an uncaused and absolute mind authoring them.
Logical Absolutes are self-authenticating. This means that logical absolutes validate
themselves. While this is true, it does not explain their existence.
It is begging the question. It just says they are because they are.
Logical Absolutes are like rules of chess, which are not absolute and transcendent.
The rules of chess are human inventions since Chess is a game invented by people. In fact,
the rules of chess have changed over the years, but logical absolutes have not. So, comparing
the rules of chess to logical absolutes is invalid.
There are different kinds of logic. Saying there are different kinds of logic
does not explain the existence of logical absolutes.
"Logical absolutes need no transcendental existence: saying 'they would be true even
if matter didn't exist' is irrelevant, because we're concerned with their existence, not
their logical validity. Saying 'the idea of a car would still exist even if matter didn't
exist' doesn't imply that your car is transcendental (reductio ad absurdum)."
Why do logical absolutes need no transcendental existence? Simply saying they don't need a
transcendental existence doesn't account for their existence. "Need" deals with desire
and wants, which are irrelevant to the discussion of the nature of logical absolutes.
Also, why is it irrelevant to say they would be true even if matter didn't exist? On the
contrary, it is precisely relevant to the discussion since we're dealing with the nature
of logical absolutes which are conceptual realities, not physical ones.
The illustration that a car would still exist if matter did not exist is illogical. By definition,
a car is made of matter and if matter did not exist, a car could not logically exist.
in our minds (i.e. brains), and we use them to carry out computations via neural networks,
silicon networks, etc., suggested by the fact that logic - like language - is learned, not
inbuilt (ball's in your court to demonstrate an independent existence, or problem with
this)." (...continued in next objection...) How do you know that logical abstractions
do not have existence independent of our minds? Saying so doesn't make it so. This is precisely
one of the points about the nature of logical absolutes; namely, that they are a process
other and are also self-contradictory. This would preclude our minds from being the authors
of what is logically absolute. Furthermore, if they are constructions of our minds, then
all I have to do is claim victory in any argument because that is how I construct my logical
abstractions. But, of course, you wouldn't accept this as being valid. Therefore, this
demonstrates that your assertion is incorrect. (continued from previous objection...) "Logical
absolutes are absolute, not because of some special quality, but because we judge them
using logic. Therefore, their absoluteness doesn't arise from any special ontological
quality (category error on your part)." You are begging the question. You use logic
to demonstrate that logical absolutes are absolute. You are not giving a rational reason
for their existence. Instead, you assume their existence and argue accordingly.
Furthermore, when you presuppose the validity of logical absolutes to demonstrate they are
absolute, you contradict your statement in your previous objection about them being constructs
of human minds. They cannot be constructs of human minds, because human minds contradict
each other and themselves. I do not see any category mistake on my part.
The nature of logical absolutes is that they are conceptual, not physical. This is something
I have brought out before so that their categories do not get mixed. The nature of logical absolutes
is exactly relevant to the question. (continued from previous objection...) "Logical
absolutes can be accurately described as conventions in communication. The fact that they are widely
employed does not imply anything transcendental, anymore than the wide employment of the word
"lolly" as something small and yummy implies that the word "lolly" is transcendental (non
sequitor)." Saying that they are "widely employed does
not imply anything transcendental" is inaccurate. Something that is transcendental, as in logical
absolutes, would naturally be widely employed because they are valid. You have recognized
that they are widely used, but they are because they are transcendent. They do not become
transcendent because they are widely used. This still does not account for the existence
of logical absolutes. (continued from previous objection...) "Logical
processes are clearly carried out by material constructs, usually neural or electrical.
They do this without any known "input" or "guidance" from anything transcendental, which
makes you wonder why anything transcendental is needed in the equation at all (reality
check)." You haven't defined "material construct" or
what you mean by neural or electrical (constructs). If you mean a computer or something of that
kind, this doesn't help you at all because humans designed them using logic. If you mean
that they are the process of the human brain, you still haven't solved the problem of their
existence; since the implication would be that if our minds do not exist, logical absolutes
would not exist either. But this would mean that logical absolutes were not absolute,
but dependent upon human minds. Again, the problem would be that human minds are different
and contradict each other. Therefore, logical absolutes, which are not contradictory, cannot
be the product of minds that are contradictory. You don't have to know the input or understand
the guidance from anything transcendental for the transcendentals to be true.
"Logic is one of those characteristics that any healthy human 'has.' It's not free to
vary from one person to the next for the same kind of reason that 'number of eyes' is a
can be rationally expected in a non-theistic universe. If there is no one around with the
transcendental power to change it, why should the behavior of the universe tomorrow differ
from its behavior today? "Semantics of the language." Semantics deals
with the study of the meaning of words, their development, changes in meaning, and the interpretation
of words, etc. But semantics by nature deals with the changing meaning of words and the
often subjective nature of language and its structures. To say the absolutes of logic
are a result of the use of the subjective meanings of words is problematic. How do you
derive logical absolutes from the non-absolute semantic structures of non-absolute languages?
Furthermore, simply asserting that logic is a result of the semantics of the language
does not explain the transcendent nature of logic. Remember, the TAG argument asserts
that Logical Absolutes are independent of human existence -- reasons given at the beginning
of the paper. Since language, in this context, is a result of human existence, the argument
would suggest that logic came into existence when language came into existence. But this
would invalidate the nature of logical absolutes and their transcendent characteristics. Therefore,
this objection is invalid. If logic is the result of language, then logic
came into existence with language. This cannot be for the reasons stated above.
If logic is the result of language, and since language rules change, then can we conclude
that the laws of logic would also change? If so, then the laws of logic are not laws,
they are not absolute. Saying that "a statement is a theorem of logic"
does not account for logic, but presupposes existence of logic. This is begging the question.